>
> That being said, I *do* recognize that it sounds more archaic each year, even as does the correct use of “whom.”
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>>Apparently, I am deeply in the minority here.
>>
>>*I* do talk like that. I use the “having been —-ed” phrase all the time
>>in everyday life.
>>
>>It doesn’t sound strained or “off” at all to me.
than most people. That’s perfectly fine. No criticism is intended, even
though people often do take offense at being told their speech is that of a
minority.
I switch registers in the classroom all the time in order to make students
aware of the necessity for educated people to be able to do that. Most of us
can use all 3 (that’s the usual number, kind of a non-standard, then
standard colloquial, then formal: 1,2,3), but uneducated people generally
cannot use either 2 or 3 and many people who can use 2 cannot reach 3.
Again, that’s entirely to be expected and is not a condemnation of anyone’s
speech. Level 1, R-1, has all the characteristics of powerful, expressive
language and attempts to label it unclear, imprecise, and illogical utterly
fail. The only area in which R-3 is superior is in its rich vocabulary, but
R-1 has good vocabulary resources as well, though not as rich and varied as
R-3’s.
One feature of R-3 in English is its reliance on Latin models. In the case
we are discussing, I imagine that the “…having been followed all day by
the sun……..” construction derives from its use in translating the Latin
usage.
I would like someone to recommend a book to me that discusses in detail the
way Latin uses participles, much as Sanskrit does and which is expressed
often by the “…having been Xed….”, in a way that gives Latin
compositions a special flavor.