Question for linguists

I just read in Medieval and Modern Greek by Robert Browning that Medieval Greek, while borrowing lots of words from Romance languages, could not borrow much in the way of verbs because Greek verbs required a two-stem system.
Two questions about that:
How often are borrowings restricted based on the demands of the receiving language’s system?
Why did not Greek do like Russian and English and devise an denominalizing derivational form cf. English -ize and Russian -ovat’?

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